Study Exam Unit 2


1.       The period of the zygote lasts about __________, beginning with __________.

          a.   3 months; fertilization

          b.   2 weeks; implantation

          c.   3 months; implantation

          d.   2 weeks; fertilization


2.       By the end of the period of the embryo, the embryo does NOT

          a.        move strongly enough to be felt by the mother.

          b.        respond to touch.

          c.   have arms, legs, fingers, and toes.

          d.   have a working circulatory system.


3.       The umbilical cord grows to a length of

          a.   1 to 3 inches

          b.   5 to 7 inches

          c.   10 to 12 inches

          d.   1 to 3 feet


4.       The period of the fetus is primarily a time when

          a.        implantation in the uterus occurs.

          b.        basic structures are laid down.

          c.        major organs first begin to function.

          d.        growth and finishing take place.


5.       The age of viability refers to the point at which

          a.   rapid fetal growth begins.

          b.   the heart begins to pump blood around the fetus's circulatory system.

          c.   the age at which the fetus can first survive if born early.

          d.   the fetus's lungs begin to expand and contract in a rehearsal of breathing movements.


6.       The harm done by teratogens depends on each of the following factors EXCEPT

          a.   labor and delivery medication.

          b.   age of the prenatal organism.

          c.        dose.

          d.        heredity.


7.       Newborn babies who have a particularly shrill, piercing cry are often born to mothers who took ______ during pregnancy.

          a.        aspirin

          b.        cocaine

          c.   DES

          d.        thalidomide


8.       The most well-known effect of smoking during the prenatal period is

          a.        sleep apnea.

          b.        allergies.

          c.   low birth weight.

          d.        respiratory distress.


9.       In addition to mental retardation, prenatal exposure to mercury has been linked to

          a.        abnormalities of the face, chest, and skeleton.

          b.        irritability, hyperactivity, and increased muscle tone.

          c.        lethargy, sleepiness, and difficulty staying awake.

          d.        abnormal speech and difficulty chewing or swallowing.


10.     The toxoplasmosis parasite can be transmitted through the feces of infected

          a.        lizards.

          b.        birds.

          c.   cats.

          d.        dogs.


11.     Sabrina weighed nine pounds when she was born. Research shows that she is at increased risk of __________ in adulthood.

          a.        breast cancer

          b.        stroke

          c.   heart disease

          d.        diabetes


12.     Severe emotional stress during pregnancy is associated with a higher risk of each of the following EXCEPT

          a.        neural tube defects.

          b.        newborn respiratory illness.

          c.   low birth weight.

          d.   cleft palate.


13.     A serious illness of pregnancy in which the mother's blood pressure increases sharply and her face, hands, and feet swell is called

          a.        toxemia.

          b.        phyloric stenosis.

          c.        ectopic pregnancy.

          d.   Rh blood incompatibility.


14.     The expulsion of the placenta takes place during the ______ stage of labor.

          a.   first

          b.        second

          c.   third

          d.   This does not happen during labor, but after labor is over.


15.     The average newborn baby weighs __________ and is __________ inches long.

          a.   4 1/2 pounds; 15

          b.   7 1/2 pounds; 20

          c.   9 pounds; 22

          d.   12 to 13 pounds; 24


16.     The Apgar Scale rates characteristics of a newborn, including the baby's

          a.   heart rate, color, and muscle tone.

          b.        length and weight.

          c.        vision, hearing, and sense of touch.

          d.        reflexes, state changes, and responsiveness to physical and social stimuli.


17.     Which of the following mothers should have their baby in a hospital rather than at home?

          a.        Elizabeth, a healthy 25-year-old whose baby is in a breech position

          b.        Michelle, a 40-year-old, assisted by a well-trained midwife

          c.        Debra, a 19-year-old, with a family history of sickle cell anemia

          d.        Alexandra, a 30-year-old who had a previous miscarriage


18.     In healthy pregnancies, fetal monitoring

          a.        reduces the rate of infant death.

          b.   is necessary to detect hidden problems with the baby.

          c.   does not reduce the rate of infant brain damage.

          d.        reduces the likelihood of cesarean delivery.


19.     Which country has the highest rate of cesarean delivery in the world?

          a.        China

          b.        Sweden

          c.        Japan

          d.   the United States


20.     The most common reason for a cesarean delivery is because the

          a.   baby is in breech position and cannot be turned to a head-down position.

          b.        mother's labor has failed to progress.

          c.        mother has had a previous cesarean delivery.

          d.        infant is too large to fit through the mother's birth canal.


21.              Research on interventions for very low-birth-weight infants born into poverty shows that

          a.   high-quality intervention is needed into the school years.

          b.        intensive intervention is needed only for the first year.

          c.   even comprehensive intervention does not allow these infants to catch up to agemates in intelligence by age 3.

          d.   just a few sessions of coaching in recognizing and responding to the baby's needs leads to steady gain in mental test scores.


22.     Each of the following has been used successfully in countries that outrank the United States in infant survival EXCEPT

          a.        government-funded prenatal care.

          b.        national paid maternity leave.

          c.        specially trained maternity helpers.

          d.        federally funded child care.


23.     Which of the following newborn reflexes is most likely NO LONGER needed for healthy infant development?

          a.        rooting

          b.   moro

          c.        palmar grasp

          d.        sucking


24.     Most newborn reflexes

          a.   last throughout the lifespan.

          b.        disappear by six months.

          c.        disappear by two or three years.

          d.        disappear by puberty.


25.              __________ is the most common cause of crying in newborn infants.

          a.   A soiled diaper

          b.        Hunger

          c.   Gas

          d.        Fatigue


26.     Which of the following senses is LEAST developed at birth?

          a.        touch

          b.   taste

          c.        vision

          d.        smell


27.              "Recovery curves" on Brazelton's Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale (NBAS) can be used to predict

          a.        whether a parent has adequate parenting skills.

          b.   the child's intelligence during the preschool years.

          c.        mother-infant bonding.

          d.        when an infant is going to need special medical intervention.


28.     The stress of adapting to parenthood

          a.   is generally more difficult for men than it is for women.

          b.   goes on for at least the first three or four years.

          c.   can be managed when parents support each other.

          d.   is not as great as most people believe it to be.


29.     Most babies are described by their parents as unusually __________ on the day before a growth spurt.

          a.        lethargic and withdrawn

          b.        anxious and irregular

          c.        irritable and hungry

          d.        active and fussy


30.     The cephalocaudal trend in development means that

          a.   the extremities develop before the central regions.

          b.   the head region develops before the foot region.

          c.        males develop more rapidly than females.

          d.        females develop more rapidly than males.


31.     When development proceeds from the center of the body outward it is known as the __________ trend.

          a.        systematic expansion

          b.        cephalocaudal

          c.        proximodistal

          d.        bidirectional


32.              ________ are responsible for __________, the coating of neural fibers with a fatty sheath that improves the efficiency of message transfer.

          a.   Glial cells; synaptic pruning

          b.        Synapses; myelinization

          c.   Glial cells; myelinization

          d.        Synapses; synaptic pruning


33.     The ability of another part of the brain to take over the functions of a damaged region is known as

          a.        myelinization.

          b.        synaptic pruning.

          c.        plasticity.

          d.        lateralization.


34.     Once the two hemispheres __________, the cortex __________.

          a.        lateralize; loses unneeded synapses

          b.        myelinize; is no longer highly plastic

          c.        lateralize; is no longer highly plastic

          d.        myelinize; loses unneeded synapses


35.     Each of the following is a risk factor for sudden infant death syndrome EXCEPT

          a.        placing infants to sleep on their backs.

          b.        prenatal abuse of drugs.

          c.        wrapping babies very warmly in clothing and blankets.

          d.        cigarette smoking during and after pregnancy.


          36.              Beginning to sleep through the night in infancy is most strongly related to which of the following factors?

          a.   brain maturation

          b.        weight

          c.   the rate of food absorption

          d.        stomach capacity


37.              Research shows that infant-parent "cosleeping"

          a.        hinders babies' ability to fall asleep on their own.

          b.   is common only in nonindustrialized countries.

          c.        interferes with infants' ability to sleep through the night.

          d.   often occurs in cultures in which infant sleep problems are uncommon.


38.     One important benefit of breast-feeding, especially in nonindustrialized areas of the world, is that it

          a.        helps babies go a longer time between feedings.

          b.        reduces the risk of future pregnancy complications.

          c.        greatly improves the psychological health of the baby.

          d.        helps increase the spacing in age between siblings.


39.     Most overweight babies

          a.        become obese adults.

          b.   are bottle-fed rather than breast-fed.

          c.   are less active than normal-weight babies.

          d.   thin out during toddlerhood and the preschool years.


40.     A longitudinal study of marasmic children revealed that

          a.   an improved diet leads to some catch-up growth in height, but little improvement in head size.

          b.        marasmus strikes only in developing countries.

          c.   once marasmic children are put on an improved diet, they soon catch up to agemates in terms of cognitive development.

          d.        these children show no organic cause for their failure to grow.


41.     Infants who are given sufficient nourishment and have no physical symptoms except that they do not grow as expected are diagnosed with

          a.        nonorganic failure to thrive.

          b.        kwashiorkor.

          c.        deprivation dwarfism.

          d.        marasmus.


42.     A neutral stimulus that is repeatedly associated with another stimulus that reliably elicits a reflexive response and therefore begins to elicit a response of its own is called a(n) __________ stimulus.

          a.        dependent

          b.        independent

          c.        conditioned

          d.        unconditioned


43.     An outcome or consequence that increases the probability that the behavior that caused it will be repeated is called a(n)

          a.        conditioned stimulus.

          b.        unconditioned stimulus.

          c.        reinforcer.

          d.        habituator.


44.              Habituation is an important technique for those who study newborns, because it allows them to tell that an infant can

          a.        recognize that a stimulus is familiar.

          b.        detect a change in a stimulus.

          c.        recall a stimulus that is not present.

          d.        control a powerful reflex response.


45.     Which of the following is NOT supported by research on newborn imitation?

          a.        Through imitation, adults can get babies to express desirable behavior.

          b.        Newborn imitation reflects an automatic response to particular stimuli.

          c.        Through imitation, infants notice similarities between their own actions and those of others.

          d.        Using imitation, newborns begin to get to know people by sharing behavioral states with them.


46.     Which of these is the best example of a gross motor skill?

          a.        drawing

          b.        crawling

          c.        grasping

          d.        reaching


47.              According to a dynamic systems account of motor skills, each new skill is dependent on each of the following factors EXCEPT

          a.   the goal the child has in mind.

          b.        autonomic nervous system development.

          c.        environmental supports for the skill.

          d.        movement possibilities of the body.


48.     The ulnar grasp is a motor skill in which a baby

          a.   picks up small objects between fingers and thumbs.

          b.        takes broad, uncoordinated swings at objects.

          c.   turns the head toward an object and puts it in his or her mouth.

          d.        holds an object by folding the fingers against the palm.


49.     The ability to grasp an object develops in the following sequence of skills:

          a.   ulnar grasp, prereaching, pincer grasp.

          b.        prereaching, ulnar grasp, pincer grasp.

          c.        pincer grasp, ulnar grasp, prereaching.

          d.        prereaching, pincer grasp, ulnar grasp.


50.     The visual cliff was developed by Gibson and Walk to study the development of __________ perception.

          a.   face

          b.        depth

          c.        pattern

          d.        intermodal


51.     Which of these experiences helps a baby most in developing an understanding of the three-dimensional world?

          a.        being carried everywhere by the mother

          b.        independent movement, such as crawling

          c.        having colorful moving objects to look at

          d.        educational television, such as Sesame Street


52.     Which of the following abilities has the average 3-month-old NOT yet developed?

          a.   the ability to recognize his or her mother's face in a photograph

          b.   a preference for a facial pattern over a pattern with scrambled facial features

          c.   the ability to treat positive faces (happy and surprised) as different from negative ones (sad and fearful)

          d.   the ability to tell the differences between the photos of two strangers, even when the faces are moderately similar


53.     Each of the following interventions helps infants with severe visual impairments to compensate for visual loss EXCEPT

          a.        providing a context for rich language stimulation.

          b.        providing corrective lenses.

          c.        providing stimulation that combines sound and touch.

          d.        encouraging manipulative play with objects that make sounds.


54.              Research suggests that intermodal perception

          a.   is present at birth.

          b.   is the direct result of intermodal experience with the environment.

          c.        appears during the first month of life.

          d.        emerges as the result of independent locomotion.


55.              According to differentiation theory, infants constantly look for ways

          a.   to construct categories of objects and events in the environment.

          b.   to seek out changing relationships between perceptual features in the environment.

          c.   in which the environment affords opportunities for action.

          d.   to make sense of variant features in the environment.


56.     A preschooler who sees an airplane for the first time and calls it a bird is most likely __________ the airplane into her bird scheme.

          a.        accommodating

          b.        organizing

          c.        equilibrating

          d.        assimilating


57.     The tendency to rearrange and integrate schemes, apart from direct contact with the environment, is

          a.        assimilation.

          b.        organization.

          c.        accommodation.

          d.        equilibration.


58.     During the first substage of the sensorimotor period,

          a.        infants apply reflexive behaviors rather indiscriminately.

          b.        babies do not yet form schemes.

          c.        behaviors are aimed at producing novel effects in the environment.

          d.        babies begin to vary their behaviors in response to environmental demands.


59.     Piaget's sensorimotor Substage 6 is different from the other substages because infants who have reached it become able to

          a.        create mental representations of absent objects and past events.

          b.   act deliberately to make interesting experiences happen again.

          c.        search for hidden objects in different places until they find them.

          d.   use language to express their experiences or their demands.


60.     Which of the following capacities does NOT emerge during Substage 6 of the sensorimotor period?

          a.        mental representation

          b.        deferred imitation

          c.        make-believe play

          d.        object permanence


61.     An important research-based criticism of Piaget's theory of development during the sensorimotor stage is that

          a.        cognitive development is gradual and continuous.

          b.        many sensorimotor capacities emerge much later than Piaget expected.

          c.        infants and toddlers progress through more stages than those conceptualized by Piaget.

          d.        many schemes in infancy are constructed through acting directly on the world.


62.     In the information-processing system, long-term memory

          a.        stores information permanently.

          b.   is limited in capacity.

          c.   is the conscious part of our mental system.

          d.   is the central processing resource pool.


63.              Habituation-dishabituation research shows that young infants are capable of

          a.        rehearsal.

          b.        recognition.

          c.        recall.

          d.        reconstruction.

64.     In contrast to Piaget's theory, an information-processing account of development emphasizes

          a.        nature.

          b.        nurture.

          c.        continuity.

          d.        discontinuity.


65.              Compared with Piaget's theory, the information-processing approach to development has more difficulty with

          a.        breaking down children's thoughts into precise procedures.

          b.        reducing changes in thoughts into manageable proportions.

          c.        counting the number of stages children's thoughts go through.

          d.        integrating information into a broad comprehensive theory.


66.              Research shows that parents can facilitate their children's autobiographical recall by using all of the following strategies EXCEPT

          a.        repeatedly asking the same short-answer questions.

          b.        adding information to their children's statements.

          c.        volunteering their own recollections of events.

          d.        asking many varied questions.


67.     Recent research shows that at 12 months,

          a.   most episodes of make-believe play occur when children are playing alone.

          b.        almost all make-believe play episodes are initiated by caregivers.

          c.        make-believe play occurs more often in child-child interactions than in mother-child interactions.

          d.        toddlers initiate almost all play episodes with caregivers.


68.     Infant intelligence tests

          a.   are good predictors of IQ test scores during childhood.

          b.   are helpful for assessing the health and well-being of newborns.

          c.        show good long-term prediction of intelligence for samples of normal babies, but not for very low-scoring babies.

          d.   do not tap the same dimensions of intelligence measured at older ages.


69.     Many researchers believe that the habituation-dishabituation response during infancy is effective at predicting later IQ because it

          a.        assesses an important sensorimotor milestone.

          b.        measures a higher-order cognitive skill.

          c.        reveals infants' ability to process complex stimuli.

          d.   taps quickness of thinking, a characteristic of bright individuals.


70.    Compared with those of other Western countries, the child care services in the United States are

          a.   not as important, as fewer American mothers work.

          b.   not well regulated and are often of very poor quality.

          c.        better overall, as more American mothers work.

          d.   more focused on improving cognitive skills.


71.              According to the nativist perspective, the early and rapid development of language in humans is due primarily to

          a.        parents stressing the importance of communication.

          b.   an innate system that contains a set of rules common to all languages.

          c.        children's abilities to imitate other people.

          d.        parents simplifying their speech to children.


72.              Compared with other perspectives on language development, the interactionist perspective puts much more emphasis on a child's

          a.        innate capacity to learn language.

          b.        learning experiences in the environment.

          c.        desire to communicate with people.

          d.        growing control over the lips and tongue.


73.              Research suggests that __________ between mothers and their babies during play fosters language development.

          a.        semantic bootstrapping

          b.        telegraphic speech

          c.   fast mapping

          d.   joint attention


74.     Games such as pat-a-cake and peekaboo

          a.        hinder the transition from preverbal to verbal communication.

          b.        facilitate children's understanding of illocutionary intent.

          c.   help children attain conversational strategies such as turnabout and shading.

          d.        foster infants' understanding of the turn-taking pattern of human conversation.


75.     An early vocabulary error in which a word is applied to a wider collection of objects or events than is appropriate is called a(n)

          a.        underextension.

          b.        overextension.

          c.   A-B language error.

          d.        telegraphic error.


76.              Children's two-word utterances that leave out smaller and less important words are called

          a.   the A-B language error.

          b.        telegraphic speech.

          c.        underextensions.

          d.        overextensions.


77.     At the dinner table, Dora shouts, "No peas!" when her mother tries to spoon some peas onto her plate. Dora's sentence is an example of

          a.   a protodeclarative.

          b.        shading.

          c.        telegraphic speech.

          d.        child-directed speech.


78.     In which of the following cases should the parents be concerned about their child's language development?

          a.   A 6-month-old infant who has not yet begun to coo.

          b.   A 12-month-old who has not yet said her first recognizable word.

          c.   A 20-month-old who has a vocabulary of 200 words.

          d.   A 24-month-old who has not yet combined two words.


79.     The most effective child-directed speech

          a.        creates a zone of proximal development.

          b.        fosters the development of children's autobiographic memory.

          c.        promotes metalinguistic awareness.

          d.        engages children in referential communication.


80.              Compared to deaf children of deaf parents, deaf children of hearing parents tend to be delayed in language progress and in complex make-believe play. Researchers attribute this to differences in

          a.        infant-mother attachment.

          b.   early parent-child communication.

          c.   the ability of parents to learn sign language.

          d.        child-rearing style.


81.              According to Erikson, what determines whether an infant will achieve a positive outcome to the first crisis of psychosocial development?

          a.   the amount of oral stimulation that is provided

          b.   the quality of the caregiver's behavior

          c.   the amount of food given to the infant

          d.        whether the child is breast-fed or bottle-fed


82.              According to Erikson's theory, a mother who promptly and sensitively relieves her infant's discomfort is fostering her baby's sense of

          a.        attachment.

          b.        autonomy.

          c.   trust.

          d.   self-regulation.


83.              __________ is evoked by the human face and first appears between __________ of age.

          a.   The social smile; 6 and 10 weeks

          b.        Laughter; 6 and 10 weeks

          c.   The social smile; 2 and 3 months

          d.        Laughter; 2 and 3 months


84.     Which cognitive ability is most directly associated with an increase in anger between 8 and 12 months?

          a.   the ability to remember how people treated you before

          b.   the ability to plan more effective reactions to events

          c.   the ability to figure out who or what caused frustrations

          d.   the ability to pay more attention to one's unhappiness


85.     After Amanda's first daughter was born, she became anxious and weepy, overwhelmed by her daughter's needs, and angry that she no longer had control over her own schedule. Amanda has a form of depression called

          a.        major depression.

          b.        bipolar depression.

          c.        unipolar depression.

          d.        postpartum depression.


86.     Social referencing is important to children's development because it allows parents to

          a.        show children they care about their feelings.

          b.        reward children for improving their behavior.

          c.        teach children how to react to novel events.

          d.        understand their children's emotional responses.


87.     Self-conscious emotions differ from basic emotions in that self-conscious emotions

          a.   help the child get around more successfully in the world.

          b.        influence the child's individual thoughts and feelings.

          c.   are instinctive, genetically determined, and present at birth.

          d.        require socialization experiences in order to develop.

88.     Which of the following is NOT an example of self-regulation?

          a.        counting to 10 before responding when angry

          b.        deciding not to watch a scary horror movie

          c.        laughing at a funny joke

          d.        drinking a cup of coffee to wake up in the morning


89.     By the end of the first year, infants become better able to regulate their emotions because they become able to

          a.        express their feelings more accurately in words.

          b.        move about to approach or avoid situations.

          c.        understand others' emotions.

          d.   think about how others would feel in the same situation.


90.     In the Thomas and Chess model for classifying children's temperaments, the most frequently observed category was the ______ child.

          a.        difficult

          b.   easy

          c.        slow-to-warm-up

          d.        uninhibited


91.     What percentage of babies cannot be classified easily into the temperament categories of easy, difficult, or slow-to-warm-up?

          a.   35 percent

          b.   10 percent

          c.   85 percent

          d.   60 percent


92.     Four-month-old Max is easily upset by novelty. According to research by Kagan, Max is likely to

          a.        develop low self-esteem by early childhood.

          b.   have higher-than-average intelligence in middle childhood.

          c.        develop an insecure attachment to his mother by the second year.

          d.        become a fearful, inhibited preschooler.


93.     If parents believe that their first-born baby is easy, they are more likely to describe their second-born child as

          a.        about as easy as the first.

          b.   even easier than the first.

          c.   a difficult infant.

          d.        There is no way to predict.

94.     An effective match between child-rearing practices and a child's temperament that leads to favorable adjustment is known as

          a.   the caregiving continuum.

          b.        secure attachment.

          c.        situational parenting.

          d.        goodness of fit.


95.     In ethological theory, attachment results from

          a.   a secondary drive for affection and love.

          b.        innate behaviors that trigger parental care.

          c.   the operant conditioning of behaviors.

          d.   a reduction in anxiety, leading to trust.


96.              According to Bowlby, in the __________ phase, infants begin to use familiar caregivers as a secure base from which to explore.

          a.        preattachment

          b.        postattachment

          c.        attachment-in-the-making

          d.        clearcut attachment


97.     In Bowlby's ethological view of attachment, children use their experiences during the first 2 years to form a(n)

          a.        sense of self and the full range of self-conscious emotions.

          b.        internal working model of what close relationships are like.

          c.        system for manipulating the behaviors of their caregivers.

          d.        basis for their continued fine and gross motor control.


98.     In the Strange Situation, if a baby remains close to his mother before a separation and displays angry behavior when she returns, he would be classified as

          a.        secure.

          b.        avoidant.

          c.        disorganized-disoriented.

          d.        resistant.


99.              Researchers have studied the children of many societies to determine their reactions to the Strange Situation. In all societies studied to date, the most common response is

          a.        resistant.

          b.        secure.

          c.        avoidant.

          d.        disorganized-disoriented.

100.   Which attachment pattern is especially high among maltreated infants?

          a.        disorganized/disoriented

          b.        secure

          c.        avoidant

          d.        resistant


101.   Women who show objectivity and balance in discussing their childhoods, even if they were negative, tend to have infants who can be characterized by which of the following attachment patterns?

          a.        avoidant

          b.        secure

          c.        disorganized-disoriented

          d.        resistant


102.              Research on the Aka of Central Africa reveals that the strong father-infant relationship is due in great part to

          a.   the strong division of male and female duties in the tribe.

          b.   the lack of respect for women within the tribe.

          c.   the lack of respect for men within the tribe.

          d.   an exceptionally warm and gratifying marital relationship.


103.   Most sibling relationships can best be characterized as showing

          a.        strong resentment and competition for parents' attention.

          b.        loving and caring of both children equally for the other.

          c.   few strong emotions, as siblings are not very important.

          d.   a rich combination of emotions, positive and negative.


104.              Research on the long-term consequences of attachment suggests that __________ largely determines whether attachment security is linked to later development.

          a.        sensitive caregiving during the first year of life

          b.        affectional ties outside the family

          c.        continuity of caregiving

          d.   the number of children in the family


105.              Research on early child care suggests that each of the following may contribute to a higher rate of insecure attachment among infants of employed mothers EXCEPT

          a.   more than one child-care arrangement.

          b.        insensitive caregiving at home and in child care.

          c.   full-time employment.

          d.   long hours in child care.


106.   The capacity to resist the momentary impulse to engage in a socially disapproved behavior is known as

          a.   self-awareness.

          b.   self-esteem.

          c.   self-control.

          d.   self-regulation.


107.   Around 18 months, the beginnings of self-control first appear in the form of

          a.        benevolence.

          b.        realism.

          c.        compliance.

          d.        reciprocity.